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Virology MCQs 1-25

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Virology MCQs 1-25

Post  Admin on Mon Dec 15, 2008 3:02 pm

Questions

DIRECTIONS: Each question below contains five suggested responses.
Please choose the one best response to each question.


1. An HIV-positive patient asks you if you can tell him the chances of him
progressing to symptomatic AIDS. Which one of the following tests would
be most useful?
a. CD4 lymphocyte count
b. HIV antibody test
c. HIV RT PCR
d. Neopterin
e. HIV p24 antigen


2. Which of the following viruses causes an acute febrile rash and produces
disease in immunocompetent children but has been associated with
transient aplastic crises in persons with sickle cell disease?
a. Rubeola
b. Varicella-zoster
c. Parvovirus
d. Rubella
e. Herpes simplex


3. Infection with herpes simplex virus, a common human pathogen, is
best described by which of the following statements?
a. The CNS and visceral organs are usually involved
b. It rarely recurs in a host who has a high antibody titer
c. It can be reactivated by emotional disturbances or prolonged exposure to sunlight
d. Initial infection usually occurs by intestinal absorption of the virus
e. Infection with type 1 virus is most common



4. The latest and most effective therapy for AIDS patients includes azidothymidine
(AZT), dideoxyinosine (DDI), and saquinavir or similar
agents. Use of these three drugs would inhibit which of the following viral
processes?
a. RNase, DNase
b. gp120 formation
c. p24 antibody expression
d. All membrane synthesis
e. Reverse transcriptase, protease


5. An HIV-positive patient prior to being treated with AZT, DDI, and
saquinavir has a CD4 lymphocyte count and an HIV RNA viral load test
done. Results are as follows:
CD4: 50 CD4 lymphocytes per microliter
HIV RNA: 750,000 copies per ml
Which of the following statements best describes the above patient?
a. This patient is no longer in danger of opportunistic infection
b. The 5-year prognosis is excellent
c. The patient’s HIV screening test is most likely negative
d. The patient is not infectious
e. The viral load of 750,000 copies per ml suggests that the patient will respond
to triple therapy



6. This HIV-positive patient with a viral load of 750,000 copies of HIV
RNA/ml and a total CD4 count of 50 is at an increased risk for a number of
infectious diseases. For which of the following diseases is the patient at no
more added risk than an immunocompetent host?
a. Pneumocystic pneumonia
b. Mycobacterial disease
c. Kaposi’s sarcoma
d. Pneumococcal pneumonia
e. Herpes simplex virus



7. Infectious mononucleosis, a viral disorder that can be debilitating, is
characterized by which of the following statements?
a. It is most prevalent in children less than 14 years old
b. It is caused by a rhabdovirus
c. The causative pathogen is an Epstein-Barr virus
d. Affected persons respond to treatment with the production of heterophil antibodies
e. Ribavirin is the treatment of choice



8. A tube of monkey kidney cells is inoculated with nasopharyngeal secretions.
During the next 7 days, no cytopathic effects (CPEs) are observed.
On the eighth day, the tissue culture is infected accidentally with a picornavirus;
nevertheless, the culture does not develop CPEs. The most likely
explanation of this phenomenon is that
a. The nasopharyngeal secretions contained hemagglutinins
b. The nasopharyngeal secretions contained rubella virus
c. Picornavirus does not produce CPEs
d. Picornavirus does not replicate in monkey kidney cells
e. Monkey kidney cells are resistant to CPEs



9. The clinical picture of arbovirus infection fits one of three categories:
encephalitis, hemorrhagic fever, or fever with myalgia. One of the characteristics
of arboviruses is that they
a. Are transmitted by arthropod vectors
b. Are usually resistant to ether
c. Usually cause symptomatic infection in humans
d. Are closely related to parvoviruses



10. Which one of the following statements best describes interferon’s suspected
mode of action in producing resistance to viral infection?
a. It stimulates a cell-mediated immunity
b. It stimulates humoral immunity
c. Its direct antiviral action is related to the suppression of messenger RNA formation
d. Its action is related to the synthesis of a protein that inhibits translation or transcription
e. It alters the permeability of the cell membrane so that viruses cannot enter the
cell




11. Coronaviruses are recognized by club-shaped surface projections that
are 20 nm long and resemble solar coronas. These viruses are characterized
by their ability to
a. Infect infants more frequently than adults
b. Cause the common cold
c. Grow well in the usual cultured cell lines
d. Grow profusely at 50°C
e. Agglutinate human red blood cells



12. Delta hepatitis only occurs in patients who also have either acute or
chronic infection with hepatitis B virus. The delta agent is
a. An incomplete hepatitis B virus
b. Related to hepatitis A virus
c. A hepatitis B mutant
d. An incomplete RNA virus
e. Hepatitis C



13. Which of the following antiviral agents is a purine nucleoside analogue
that has shown promise with Lassa fever, influenza A and B, and respiratory
syncytial virus (RSV)?
a. Amantadine
b. Rimantadine
c. Vidarabine
d. Ribavirin
e. Acyclovir



14. Echoviruses are cytopathogenic human viruses that mainly infect the
a. Respiratory system
b. Central nervous system
c. Blood and lymphatic systems
d. Intestinal tract
e. Bladder and urinary tract



15. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of herpes simplex (HSV)
meningitis in a newborn infant is
a. HSV IgG antibody
b. HSV polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
c. HSV culture
d. Tzanck smear
e. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein analysis




16. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis (AHC) is a contagious ocular infection
characterized by pain, swelling of the eyelids, and subconjunctival
hemorrhages. AHC has been reported to be caused by which of the following
viruses?
a. Coronavirus
b. Reovirus
c. Rhinovirus
d. Enterovirus
e. Respiratory syncytial virus




17. Mumps virus accounts for 10 to 15% of all cases of aseptic meningitis
in the United States. Infection with mumps virus
a. Is apt to recur periodically in many affected persons
b. Will usually cause mumps orchitis in postpubertal males
c. Is maintained in a large canine reservoir
d. Usually produces severe systemic manifestations
e. Is preventable by immunization




18. The serum of a newborn infant reveals a 1:32 cytomegalovirus (CMV)
titer. The child is clinically asymptomatic. Which of the following courses
of action would be advisable?
a. Repeat the CMV titer immediately
b. Wait 6 months and obtain another titer on the baby
c. Obtain a CMV titer from all siblings
d. Obtain an anti-CMV IgM titer from the mother
e. Obtain an anti-CMV IgM titer from the baby




19. A 3-year-old child presents at the physician’s office with symptoms of
coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade fever, and Koplik’s spots. The causative
agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?
a. Adenovirus
b. Herpesvirus
c. Picornavirus
d. Orthomyxovirus
e. Paramyxovirus





20. One of the most common sexually transmitted diseases that may lead
to cervical carcinoma is caused by which of the following viruses?
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Papillomavirus
c. Epstein-Barr virus
d. Herpes simplex virus
e. Adenovirus




21. Which virus is the leading cause of the croup syndrome in young children
and, when infecting mammalian cells in culture, will hemabsorb red
blood cells?
a. Group B coxsackievirus
b. Rotavirus
c. Parainfluenza virus
d. Adenovirus
e. Rhinovirus




22. Hepatitis E, a recently characterized hepatitis virus, is best described
by which of the following statements?
a. It is not a threat to the blood supply
b. It is a major cause of blood-borne hepatitis
c. It is prevalent in North America
d. It is a single-stranded DNA virus
e. The disease resembles hepatitis C




23. Meningitis is characterized by the acute onset of fever and stiff neck.
Aseptic meningitis may be caused by a variety of microbial agents. During
the initial 24 h of the course of aseptic meningitis, an affected person’s cerebrospinal
fluid is characterized by
a. Decreased protein content
b. Elevated glucose concentration
c. Lymphocytosis
d. Polymorphonuclear leukocytosis
e. Eosinophilia




24. Infection with hepatitis D virus (HDV; delta agent) can occur simultaneously
with infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV) or in a carrier of hepatitis
B virus because HDV is a defective virus that requires HBV for its
replicative function. What serologic test can be used to determine whether
a patient with HDV is an HBV carrier?
a. HBsAg
b. HBc IgM
c. HBeAg
d. HBs IgM
e. HBs IgG




25. A nurse develops clinical symptoms consistent with hepatitis. She
recalls sticking herself with a needle approximately 4 months before after
drawing blood from a patient. Serologic tests for HBsAg, antibodies to
HBsAg, and hepatitis A virus (HAV) are all negative; however, she is positive
for IgM core antibody. The nurse
a. Does not have hepatitis B
b. Has hepatitis A
c. Is in the late stages of hepatitis B infection
d. Is in the “window” (after the disappearance of HBsAg and before the appearance
of anti-HBsAg)
e. Has hepatitis C

Admin
Admin

Posts : 10
Join date : 2008-11-12

View user profile http://microbiology.4umer.net

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Answer to MSQ virology is needed

Post  Johnsnow on Wed Oct 22, 2014 6:51 am

Admin wrote:Questions

DIRECTIONS: Each question below contains five suggested responses.
Please choose the one best response to each question.


1. An HIV-positive patient asks you if you can tell him the chances of him
progressing to symptomatic AIDS. Which one of the following tests would
be most useful?
a. CD4 lymphocyte count
b. HIV antibody test
c. HIV RT PCR
d. Neopterin
e. HIV p24 antigen


2. Which of the following viruses causes an acute febrile rash and produces
disease in immunocompetent children but has been associated with
transient aplastic crises in persons with sickle cell disease?
a. Rubeola
b. Varicella-zoster
c. Parvovirus
d. Rubella
e. Herpes simplex


3. Infection with herpes simplex virus, a common human pathogen, is
best described by which of the following statements?
a. The CNS and visceral organs are usually involved
b. It rarely recurs in a host who has a high antibody titer
c. It can be reactivated by emotional disturbances or prolonged exposure to sunlight
d. Initial infection usually occurs by intestinal absorption of the virus
e. Infection with type 1 virus is most common



4. The latest and most effective therapy for AIDS patients includes azidothymidine
(AZT), dideoxyinosine (DDI), and saquinavir or similar
agents. Use of these three drugs would inhibit which of the following viral
processes?
a. RNase, DNase
b. gp120 formation
c. p24 antibody expression
d. All membrane synthesis
e. Reverse transcriptase, protease


5. An HIV-positive patient prior to being treated with AZT, DDI, and
saquinavir has a CD4 lymphocyte count and an HIV RNA viral load test
done. Results are as follows:
CD4: 50 CD4 lymphocytes per microliter
HIV RNA: 750,000 copies per ml
Which of the following statements best describes the above patient?
a. This patient is no longer in danger of opportunistic infection
b. The 5-year prognosis is excellent
c. The patient’s HIV screening test is most likely negative
d. The patient is not infectious
e. The viral load of 750,000 copies per ml suggests that the patient will respond
to triple therapy



6. This HIV-positive patient with a viral load of 750,000 copies of HIV
RNA/ml and a total CD4 count of 50 is at an increased risk for a number of
infectious diseases. For which of the following diseases is the patient at no
more added risk than an immunocompetent host?
a. Pneumocystic pneumonia
b. Mycobacterial disease
c. Kaposi’s sarcoma
d. Pneumococcal pneumonia
e. Herpes simplex virus



7. Infectious mononucleosis, a viral disorder that can be debilitating, is
characterized by which of the following statements?
a. It is most prevalent in children less than 14 years old
b. It is caused by a rhabdovirus
c. The causative pathogen is an Epstein-Barr virus
d. Affected persons respond to treatment with the production of heterophil antibodies
e. Ribavirin is the treatment of choice



8. A tube of monkey kidney cells is inoculated with nasopharyngeal secretions.
During the next 7 days, no cytopathic effects (CPEs) are observed.
On the eighth day, the tissue culture is infected accidentally with a picornavirus;
nevertheless, the culture does not develop CPEs. The most likely
explanation of this phenomenon is that
a. The nasopharyngeal secretions contained hemagglutinins
b. The nasopharyngeal secretions contained rubella virus
c. Picornavirus does not produce CPEs
d. Picornavirus does not replicate in monkey kidney cells
e. Monkey kidney cells are resistant to CPEs



9. The clinical picture of arbovirus infection fits one of three categories:
encephalitis, hemorrhagic fever, or fever with myalgia. One of the characteristics
of arboviruses is that they
a. Are transmitted by arthropod vectors
b. Are usually resistant to ether
c. Usually cause symptomatic infection in humans
d. Are closely related to parvoviruses



10. Which one of the following statements best describes interferon’s suspected
mode of action in producing resistance to viral infection?
a. It stimulates a cell-mediated immunity
b. It stimulates humoral immunity
c. Its direct antiviral action is related to the suppression of messenger RNA formation
d. Its action is related to the synthesis of a protein that inhibits translation or transcription
e. It alters the permeability of the cell membrane so that viruses cannot enter the
cell




11. Coronaviruses are recognized by club-shaped surface projections that
are 20 nm long and resemble solar coronas. These viruses are characterized
by their ability to
a. Infect infants more frequently than adults
b. Cause the common cold
c. Grow well in the usual cultured cell lines
d. Grow profusely at 50°C
e. Agglutinate human red blood cells



12. Delta hepatitis only occurs in patients who also have either acute or
chronic infection with hepatitis B virus. The delta agent is
a. An incomplete hepatitis B virus
b. Related to hepatitis A virus
c. A hepatitis B mutant
d. An incomplete RNA virus
e. Hepatitis C



13. Which of the following antiviral agents is a purine nucleoside analogue
that has shown promise with Lassa fever, influenza A and B, and respiratory
syncytial virus (RSV)?
a. Amantadine
b. Rimantadine
c. Vidarabine
d. Ribavirin
e. Acyclovir



14. Echoviruses are cytopathogenic human viruses that mainly infect the
a. Respiratory system
b. Central nervous system
c. Blood and lymphatic systems
d. Intestinal tract
e. Bladder and urinary tract



15. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of herpes simplex (HSV)
meningitis in a newborn infant is
a. HSV IgG antibody
b. HSV polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
c. HSV culture
d. Tzanck smear
e. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein analysis




16. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis (AHC) is a contagious ocular infection
characterized by pain, swelling of the eyelids, and subconjunctival
hemorrhages. AHC has been reported to be caused by which of the following
viruses?
a. Coronavirus
b. Reovirus
c. Rhinovirus
d. Enterovirus
e. Respiratory syncytial virus




17. Mumps virus accounts for 10 to 15% of all cases of aseptic meningitis
in the United States. Infection with mumps virus
a. Is apt to recur periodically in many affected persons
b. Will usually cause mumps orchitis in postpubertal males
c. Is maintained in a large canine reservoir
d. Usually produces severe systemic manifestations
e. Is preventable by immunization




18. The serum of a newborn infant reveals a 1:32 cytomegalovirus (CMV)
titer. The child is clinically asymptomatic. Which of the following courses
of action would be advisable?
a. Repeat the CMV titer immediately
b. Wait 6 months and obtain another titer on the baby
c. Obtain a CMV titer from all siblings
d. Obtain an anti-CMV IgM titer from the mother
e. Obtain an anti-CMV IgM titer from the baby




19. A 3-year-old child presents at the physician’s office with symptoms of
coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade fever, and Koplik’s spots. The causative
agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?
a. Adenovirus
b. Herpesvirus
c. Picornavirus
d. Orthomyxovirus
e. Paramyxovirus





20. One of the most common sexually transmitted diseases that may lead
to cervical carcinoma is caused by which of the following viruses?
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Papillomavirus
c. Epstein-Barr virus
d. Herpes simplex virus
e. Adenovirus




21. Which virus is the leading cause of the croup syndrome in young children
and, when infecting mammalian cells in culture, will hemabsorb red
blood cells?
a. Group B coxsackievirus
b. Rotavirus
c. Parainfluenza virus
d. Adenovirus
e. Rhinovirus




22. Hepatitis E, a recently characterized hepatitis virus, is best described
by which of the following statements?
a. It is not a threat to the blood supply
b. It is a major cause of blood-borne hepatitis
c. It is prevalent in North America
d. It is a single-stranded DNA virus
e. The disease resembles hepatitis C




23. Meningitis is characterized by the acute onset of fever and stiff neck.
Aseptic meningitis may be caused by a variety of microbial agents. During
the initial 24 h of the course of aseptic meningitis, an affected person’s cerebrospinal
fluid is characterized by
a. Decreased protein content
b. Elevated glucose concentration
c. Lymphocytosis
d. Polymorphonuclear leukocytosis
e. Eosinophilia




24. Infection with hepatitis D virus (HDV; delta agent) can occur simultaneously
with infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV) or in a carrier of hepatitis
B virus because HDV is a defective virus that requires HBV for its
replicative function. What serologic test can be used to determine whether
a patient with HDV is an HBV carrier?
a. HBsAg
b. HBc IgM
c. HBeAg
d. HBs IgM
e. HBs IgG




25. A nurse develops clinical symptoms consistent with hepatitis. She
recalls sticking herself with a needle approximately 4 months before after
drawing blood from a patient. Serologic tests for HBsAg, antibodies to
HBsAg, and hepatitis A virus (HAV) are all negative; however, she is positive
for IgM core antibody. The nurse
a. Does not have hepatitis B
b. Has hepatitis A
c. Is in the late stages of hepatitis B infection
d. Is in the “window” (after the disappearance of HBsAg and before the appearance
of anti-HBsAg)
e. Has hepatitis C

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Join date : 2014-10-22

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